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Outlawry Remedy Refusal IV
by Joe Kelley
7-21-2022

Why aren’t more people waking up? David Icke
[rumble.com]

For some people, the discovery of the remedy for outlawry remains in the darkness of ignorance, apathy, falsehood, and Treasonous Fraud Predation.

It takes one to know one.

“Hallam says, “The relation established between a lord and his vassal by the feudal tenure, far from containing principles of any servile and implicit obedience, permitted the compact to be dissolved in case of its violation by either party. This extended as much to the sovereign as to inferior lords. If a vassal was aggrieved, and if justice was denied him, he sent a defiance, that is, a renunciation of fealty to the king, and was entitled to enforce redress at the point of his sword. It then became a contest of strength as between two independent potentates, and was terminated by treaty, advantageous or otherwise, according to the fortune of war. There remained the original principle, that allegiance depended conditionally upon good treatment, and that an appeal might be lawfully made to arms against an oppressive government. Nor was this, we may be sure, left for extreme necessity, or thought to require a long enduring forbearance. In modern times, a king, compelled by his subjects’ swords to abandon any pretension, would be supposed to have ceased to reign; and the express recognition of such a right as that of insurrection has been justly deemed inconsistent with the majesty of law. But ruder ages had ruder sentiments. Force was necessary to repel force; and men accustomed to see the king’s authority defied by a private riot, were not much shocked when it was resisted in defence of public freedom.” - 3 Middle Ages, 240-2.”
Essay on The Trial by Jury
Lysander Spooner, 1852

If a private in the military refuses to obey a criminal order as ordered and does so in an orderly manner, will the private encounter obstruction of justice formed in the same form as the criminal issuing the criminal order?

“Force was necessary to repel force; and men accustomed to see the king’s authority defied by a private riot, were not much shocked when it was resisted in defence of public freedom.”
Ibid

Wiki offers:
Ibid. is an abbreviation for the Latin word ibīdem, meaning "in the same place", commonly used in an endnote, footnote, bibliography citation, or scholarly reference to refer to the source cited in the preceding note or list item.

How many privates does it take to constitute a private riot?

Three percent rudely speaking?

“We also know that, by Magna Carta, amercements, or fines, could not be imposed to the ruin of the criminal; that, in the case of a freeman, his contenement, or means of subsisting in the condition of a freeman, must be saved to him; that, in the case of a merchant, his merchandise must be spared; and in the case of a villein, his waynage, or plough-tackle and carts. This also is likely to have been a principle of the common law, inasmuch as, in that rude age, when the means of getting employment as laborers was not what they are now, the man and his family would probably have been liable to starvation, if these means of subsistence had been taken from him.
We also know, generally, that, at the time of Magna Carta, all acts intrinsically criminal, all trespasses against persons and property, were crimes, according to lex terrae, or the common law.”
Ibid

If a number of privates disobey a criminal order as ordered, and these numbers of privates disobey orderly by well-established processes according to the same orders, why would someone believe criminals WHO issue criminal orders when the criminals fraudulently claim that the privates were guilty of a private riot, in a case where the privates were orderly following orders to disobey criminal orders in the way ordered with the orders NOT criminal?

“Judging, therefore, from the special provisions in Magna Carta, requiring fines, or amercements, to be imposed only by juries, (without mentioning any other punishments; ) judging; also, from the statutes which immediately followed Magna Carta, it is probable that the Saxon custom of punishing all, or nearly all, offences by fines, (with the alternative to the criminal of being imprisoned, banished, or outlawed, and exposed to private vengeance, in case of non-payment,) continued until the time of Magna Carta; and that in providing expressly that fines should be fixed by the juries, Magna Carta provided for nearly or quite all the punishments that were expected to be inflicted; that if there were to be any others, they were to be fixed by the juries; and consequently that nothing was left to be fixed by “legem terrae.””
Ibid

If the only problem with the remedy offered by the privates as the privates obey the order not to follow criminal orders is the torturous reduction of profits flowing to criminals, then why would criminals reject the offer of remedy, as those profits no longer flow from their former victims? Why would outlaws found guilty of outlawry risk private justice, fragging, or any other similarly named justified defensive act performed with extreme vigilance and prejudice against those who refuse the offer of a peaceful remedy?
“It would seem, however, that there were, even at that day, some common law principles governing arrests; and some common law forms and rules as to holding a man for trial, (by bail or imprisonment😉 putting him on trial, such as by indictment or complaint; summoning and empanelling jurors, &c, &c. Whatever these common law principles were, Magna Carta requires them to be observed; for Magna Carta provides for the whole proceedings, commencing with the arrest, (“no freeman shall be arrested,” &c.,) and ending with the execution of the sentence. And it provides that nothing shall be done, by the government, from beginning to end, unless according to the sentence of the peers, or “legem terrae,” the common law. The trial by peers was a part of legem terrae, and we have seen that the peers must necessarily have governed the whole proceeding at the trial. But all the proceedings for arresting the man, and bringing him to trial, must have been had before the case could come under the cognizance of the peers, and they must, therefore, have been governed by other rules than the discretion of the peers. We may conjecture, although we cannot perhaps know with much certainty, that the lex terrae, or common law, governing these other proceedings, was somewhat similar to the common law principles, on the same points, as the present day. Such seem to be the opinions of Coke, who says that the phrase nisi per legem terrae means unless by due process of law.
This, he says:
“Nisi per legem terrae. But by the law of the land. For the true sense and exposition of these words, see the statute of 37 Edw. III., cap. 8, where the words, by the law of the land, are rendered without due process of law; for there it is said, though it be contained in the Great Charter, that no man be taken, imprisoned, or put out of his freehold, without process of the law; that is, by indictement or presentment of good and lawful men, where such deeds be done in due manner, or by writ original of the common law.
“Without being brought in to answer but by due process of the common law.
“No man be put to answer without presentment before justices, or thing of record, or by due process, or by writ original, according to the old law of the land.” - 2 Inst. 50.
The foregoing interpretations of the words nisi per legem terrae are corroborated by the following statutes, enacted in the next century after Magna Carta.
“That no man, from henceforth, shall be attached by any accusation, nor forejudged of life or limb, nor his land, tenements, goods, nor chattels, seized into the king’s hands, against the form of the Great Charter, and the law of the land.” - St. 5 Edward III., Ch. 9. (1331.)
“Whereas it is contained in the Great Charter of the franchises of England, that none shall be imprisoned, nor put out of his freehold, nor of his franchises, nor free customs, unless it be by the law of the land; it is accorded, assented, and established, that from henceforth none shall be taken by petition, or suggestion made to our lord the king, or to his council, unless it be by indictment of presentment of good and lawful people of the same neighborhood where such deeds be done in due manner, or by process made by writ original at the common law; nor that none be put out of his franchises, nor of his freehold, unless he be duly brough into answer, and forejudged of the same by the course of the law; and if anything be done against the same, it shall be redressed and holden for none.” - St. 25 Edward III., Ch. 4. (1350.)
“That no man, of what estate or condition that he be, shall be put out of land or tenement, nor taken, nor imprisoned, nor disinherited, nor put to death, without being brought in answer by due process of law.” - St. 28 Edward III., Ch. 3. (1354.)
“That no man be put to answer without presentment before justices, or matter of record, or by due process and writ original, according to the old law of the land. And if anything from henceforth be done to the contrary, it shall be void in law, and holden for error.” - St. 42 Edward III., Ch. 3. (1368.)
The foregoing interpretation of the words nisi per legem terrae - that is, by due process of law - including indictment, &c., has been adopted as the true one by modern writers and courts; as, for example, by Kent, (2 Comm. 13,) Story, (3 Comm. 661,) and Supreme Court of New York, (19 Wendell, 676; 4 Hill, 146.)
The fifth amendment to the constitution of the United States seems to have been framed on the same idea, inasmuch as it provides that “no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.”
Ibid

When the privates are blamed for a private riot by the criminals issuing criminal orders, the privates conscientiously object to following criminal orders blindingly, like no good Nazis follow, instead, the falsely accused privates are NOT rioting, they follow the law of the land, and offer the criminals their remedy, notwithstanding the Treasonous Fraud Predation formed as the Nazi privates with false flags and agent provocateurs are paid to riot and paid out of the International Monetary FUND from which the Treasonous Fraud Predators finance their Purchase Orders that make their crimes pay so well for all their Nazi privates WHO are paid to just follow criminal orders as they riot in the blood of the innocent to get their share of the Loot.

“…the Saxon custom of punishing all, or nearly all, offences by fines, (with the alternative to the criminal of being imprisoned, banished, or outlawed, and exposed to private vengeance, in case of non-payment,) continued until the time of Magna Carta; and that in providing expressly that fines should be fixed by the juries, Magna Carta provided for nearly or quite all the punishments that were expected to be inflicted; that if there were to be any others, they were to be fixed by the juries…”
Ibid

If privates follow the order to conscientiously object to criminal orders traced back forensically to Treasonous Fraud Predators, according to the still existing principles, precedents, statutes, codes, rules, and law of the land due process on an equal footing are, if those privates are obstructed from moving a private prosecutors cause of defensive action at law to a County Criminal Grand Jury for validation, what does the law of the land prescribe as a justifiable remedy?

If the justifiable remedy is a Declaration of Independence, which is validated by precedents long before 1776, and by the same principle the law of the land prescribes a more modern Solemn Notice of Mixed War based upon Bonding Code, Commercial and Military Lien Rights, and common sense, then will that notice deter further criminal acts such as riots as the Treasonous Fraud Predators riot in the blood of the innocent on our dimes and on our watch, or, instead will it take longer as the Treasonous Fraud Predators still have plenty of loot in their FUND?

Caveat Emptor

Josf-Kelley 8 July 21
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